[Mar 31, 2025] RealExamFree 350-401 dumps & CCNP Enterprise sure practice dumps
Cisco 350-401 Actual Questions and Braindumps
Cisco 350-401 certification exam is recommended for network engineers, network administrators, and IT professionals who are responsible for enterprise-level network infrastructure. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) certification is also suitable for individuals who are looking to advance their careers in the IT industry or are seeking to learn new skills and technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 interface. Why do the extended pings fail?
- A. R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency
- B. The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 1476 bytes.
- C. R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30
- D. The DF bit has been set
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
If the DF bit is set, routers cannot fragment packets. From the output below, we learn that the maximum MTU of R2 is 1492 bytes while we sent ping with 1500 bytes. Therefore these ICMP packets were dropped.
Note: Record option displays the address(es) of the hops (up to nine) the packet goes through.
NEW QUESTION # 57 
Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the web server on port 8080. To allow this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port G0/0 in the inbound direction?
- A. permit host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080
- B. permit host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2
- C. permit host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080
- D. permit host 192.168.0.5 it 8080 host 172.16.0.2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The inbound direction of G0/0 of SW2 only filter traffic from Web Server to PC-1 so the source IP address and port is of the Web Server.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must prevent the R6 loopback from getting into Area 2 and Area 3 from Area 0 Which action must the engineer take?
- A. Apply a fitter list inbound on R2 and R9
- B. Apply a filter list outbound on R3 and R7
- C. Apply a filter list outbound on R7 only.
- D. Apply a filter list inbound on R3 and R7
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This question asks to prevent route advertised into Area 2 and Area 3 only. It does not ask to prevent route advertised into Area 0 so applying a filter list outbound on R3 and R7 would best fit the requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 60
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result when a technician adds the monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 223 command1?
- A. RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223
- B. An error is flagged for configuring two destinations.
- C. RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223.
- D. The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When the command monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 223 is added to the configuration, it replaces the existing RSPAN VLAN destination with VLAN 223. This is because a monitor session can only have one remote VLAN destination at a time. If there was already a destination configured, such as VLAN 222 in this case, it would be overridden by the new command specifying VLAN 223. References: Cisco's official training and certification resources on Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR).
NEW QUESTION # 61
Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands is required to configure and verify the VRF for Site 1 Network A on router R1?
- A. Option B
- B. Option C
- C. Option A
- D. Option D
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on types 1 hypervisors?
- A. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.
- B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server
- C. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.
- D. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A virtual machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical server with an operating system.
From an application's point of view, the VM provides the look
and feel of a real physical server, including all its components, such as CPU, memory, and network interface cards (NICs).
The virtualization software that creates VMs and performs the hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run concurrently is known as a hypervisor.
There are two types of hypervisors: type 1 and type 2 hypervisor.
In type 1 hypervisor (or native hypervisor), the hypervisor is installed directly on the physical server. Then instances of an operating system (OS) are installed on the hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore they are more efficient than hosted architectures. Some examples of type 1 hypervisor are VMware vSphere/ESXi, Oracle VM Server, KVM and Microsoft Hyper-V.
In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. answer 'Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes' big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).
NEW QUESTION # 63
What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?
- A. Para-virtualization lacks support for containers
- B. Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor
- C. Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another
- D. Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Paravirtualization works differently from the full virtualization. It doesn't need to simulate the hardware for the virtual machines. The hypervisor is installed on a physical server (host) and a guest OS is installed into the environment. Virtual guests aware that it has been virtualized, unlike the full virtualization (where the guest doesn't know that it has been virtualized) to take advantage of the functions.
In full virtualization, guests will issue a hardware calls but in paravirtualization, guests will directly communicate with the host (hypervisor) using drivers.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?
- A. vManage
- B. PNP server
- C. vSmart
- D. vBond
Answer: D
Explanation:
vbond-as-stun-server:
Enable Session Traversal Utilities for NAT (STUN) to allow the tunnel interface to discover its public IP address and port number when the vEdge router is located behind a NAT (on vEdge routers only).
When you configure this command, vEdge routers can exchange their public IP addresses and port numbers over private TLOCs.
With this configuration, the vEdge router uses the vBond orchestrator as a STUN server, so the router can determine its public IP address and public port number. (With this configuration, the router cannot learn the type of NAT that it is behind.) No overlay network control traffic is sent and no keys are exchanged over tunnel interface configured to the the vBond orchestrator as a STUN server. However, BFD does come up on the tunnel, and data traffic can be sent on it.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand or manually?
- A. event manager applet ondemand
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand' - B. event manager applet ondemand
event register
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand' - C. event manager applet ondemand
event none
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand' - D. event manager applet ondemand
event manual
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs.
There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script.
An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. answer 'event manager applet ondemand event register action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
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There are two ways to manually run an EEM policy.
EEM usually schedules and runs policies on the basis of an event specification that is contained within the policy itself.
The event none command allows EEM to identify an EEM policy that can be manually triggered.
To run the policy, use either the action policy command in applet configuration mode or the event manager run command in privileged EXEC mode.
NEW QUESTION # 66
What is YANG used for?
- A. processing SNMP read-only polls
- B. scraping data via CLI
- C. describing data models
- D. providing a transport for network configuration data between client and server
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 67
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineers reaching network 172 16 10 0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to take a path of R1-R3-R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Option B
- B. Option C
- C. Option A
- D. Option D
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 68 
Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?
- A. A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.
- B. The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.
- C. A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.
- D. The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 69
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The configuration required to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers is found in Option C. This configuration specifies the tunnel source as the IP address of the interface on the HQ router, and the tunnel destination as the IP address of an interface on the BR router. The ip address command assigns an IP address to the tunnel interface itself. This setup allows for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of traffic between the two routers, enabling them to communicate over the GRE tunnel.
NEW QUESTION # 70
By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 15 use?
- A. c0:42:34:03:73:0f
- B. 05:5e:ac:07:0c:0f
- C. 00:00:0c:07:ac:0f
- D. 05:af:1c:0f:ac:15
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 71
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts. Which command set accomplishes this task?
- A. Option B
- B. Option C
- C. Option A
- D. Option D
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this case we need to configure a VLAN access-map to deny HTTP traffic and apply it to VLAN 10. To do it, first create an access-list, by which interesting traffic will be matched. The principle of VLAN access-map config is similar to the route-map principle.
After this we'll create a vlan access-map, which has two main parameters: action and match. Match: by this parameter the interesting traffic is matched and here RACL or MAC ACL can be applied as well. Action: what to do with matched traffic. Two main parameters exist: Drop and Forward. In case of Drop, matched traffic will be dropped, and in case of forward, matched traffic will be allowed.
A good reference and example can be found at https://www.networkstraining.com/vlan-access-map-example-configuration/
NEW QUESTION # 72
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